To prove that (a1, 1), (a2, 1), ... , (ar , 1) are linearly independent, suppose that λ1(a1, 1) + λ2(a2, 1) + ... + λr(ar , 1) = 0 in Rn+1. Then we have λ1a1 + λ2a2 + ... + λrar = 0 in Rn and λ1 + λ2 + ... + λr = 0 in R and so from the definition of affine independence we have λ1 = λ2 = ... = λr = 0 and so the given set is linearly independent.
Given two affinely independent sets { a0 , a1 , ... , an } and { b0 , b1 , ... , bn } in Rnthe sets { a1 - a0 , ... , an - a0 } and { b1 - b0 , ... , bn - b0 } are linearly independent and so there is a unique linear map L taking one to the other. Then the map Tb0 L T-a0 is the required affine map. It is easily seen to be unique.